r/learnmath • u/Dummkopfss • 6h ago
is this why −(−a) is equal to a?
Just opened an online pdf on Spivak's calculus and a few minutes into scrolling I came to the property
For every number a, there is a number -a such that
a + (−a) = (−a) + a = 0
and wondered if I could prove −(−a) = a from that.
We know that for every number x, there’s a unique additive inverse y such that x + y = 0, meaning that y is the only value that satisfies the equation. The additive inverse of a is −a, since a + (−a) = 0. And because addition is commutative, we also have (−a) + a = 0, where a is the additive inverse of −a. By notation, the additive inverse of −a is written as −(−a). So we can write (−a) + [−(−a)] = 0
In the equation (−a) + y = 0, there can only be one possible value for y. But both a and −(−a) satisfy it. Since there can only be one additive inverse of −a, by uniqueness, those two values must be equal.
So therefore a = −(−a)
Please let me know if I got the proof right and if I could word it out any better!